Hello, my name is Taylor Alford and I attend Laguardia
Community College. This week in my Violence in American Art and Culture class
(ENN 195) we've discussed Headley's view on the Great Riots of 1877. Headley
mentions several principles of communism of which the rioters followed by.
There was this one passage in particular that interested me, "No! No
matter how needy your families may be you shall not do this work. Nobody shall
do it except on our own terms". The rioters were preventing other people
who are in desperate need of work to replace them under any means necessary.
Their actions are violations of people's right to work for whatever wage they
agree upon. Headley also states, “They may cut down the price of wages, but
that is not so criminal as to tear down houses and make a wreck of human
property”. He suggests that although the rioters believe their employers are
committing a crime against them morally, it is not considered an actual crime
compared to the chaos they have caused. It was somewhat unclear to me if
Headley was against the rioters or for them.
Tuesday, September 23, 2014
Thursday, September 18, 2014
Blog Assignment #1 9.19.14
As I was reading chapter 7 of The Flour Riot of 1837, I've noticed a statement in particular, "In front of the store, and far beyond it, the flour lay half-knee deep- a sad spectacle in the view of the daily increasing scarcity of grain". (Headley 109) I was curious as to why were people destroying the very thing they demanded. Which brings me to the point we've discussed last class about the "starving" and "suffering" issue. The rioters' actions help prove Headley's claim about people not "actually starving" to be true. I believe the rioters destroyed the flour to make the company owners suffer as citizens were suffering financially. This, in a way, explains the difference between "starving" and "suffering". My question is, although it was a way to strike at the companies, was it really wise to waste the flour?
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